Current Environmental Issue EcoStation Test
Several years of tests are available:
Current Environmental Issue Test
1. What does a pontentiometric surface map represent?
A. The potential for groundwater to reach the surface.
B. Water availability in confined vs. unconfined aquifers.
C. The potential energy available to move in groundwater in a confined aquifer.
D. Water table conditions.
2. Refer to the above map. What do the arrows in the map indicate?
A. Recharge areas
B. Direction of ground water flow
C. Direction of surface water flow.
D. Direction of erosion.
3. In the above Groundwater Resources Map, gallons per minute of groundwater
that we are able to utilize are indicated by color. Of the areas indicated
which yields the least amount of usable water?
A. Northeast
B. Southeast
C. Mid-state
D. Southwest
4. Aquifers are indicated by which color?
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Orange
5. When a pollutant enters a waterway or aquifer, it spreads depending
on the aquifer and the physical and chemical nature of the contaminant.
What do we call this area of spreading contamination?
A. Contaminant trail
B. Plume
C. Pollutant zone
D. Cloud
6. Pollutants are characterized into two categories, sinkers and floaters,
when they enter the water table. What does this refer to?
A. Their weight in relation to water.
B. How quickly they sink into soil
C. Their weight in relation to other contaminants in water.
D. How quickly they dissolve into the water.
7. Which term describes all of the area that drains into a body of water?
The Great Miami's drains nearly 6,000 miles.
A. Aquifer
B. Water Table
C. Watershed
D. Surface Water
8. The above graph shows ground water usage of the Great Miami Buried
Valley Aquifer. Public Water Supply is the largest user of water. What is
the second largest?
A. Power
B. Agriculture
C. Miscellaneous uses
D. Industrial Use
9. Where do we find the 'zone of aeration'?
A. Below the water table.
B. At surface level
C. Between the surface level and the water table
D. In clay layers.
10. As part of the Safe Drinking Water Act of 1986, water suppliers
had to establish which type of program in order to protect underground drinking
water sources?
A. Wellhead Protection Program
B. Pollution Protection Program
C. Groundwater Guardian Program
D. Drinking Water Safety Program
11. There are 12 different soil texture classes recognized in the USDA
classification system. Which of the following is not a recognized texture
class?
A. Loamy Clay
B. Clay
C. Silty Clay Loam
D. Sandy Clay
12. This parent material was deposited in lake water and exposed when
the water level was lowered?
A. Colluvium deposit
B. Lacustrine deposit
C. Deaton deposit
D. Outwash deposit
13. Which statement below best describes soil infiltration?
A. Water flow through the subsoil
B. Physical characteristics of the soil
C. Downward entry of water into the immediate soil surface
D. Inherent soil quality
14. What role does rain play in causing "acid raid'?
A. Water droplets in clouds absorb carbon from the atmosphere and turn
into carbonic acid when it rains
B. Ozone gases mix with the with water droplets in clouds and fall to the
earth as Freon when it rains
C. Water droplets absorb sunlight in the atmosphere and turn into hydrochloric
acid when it rains
D. Dust particles containing sulfur mix with water droplets in clouds and
fall to the earth as sulfuric acid when it rains
E. Greenhouse gases mix with water droplets and fall to the earth as phosphoric
acid when it rains
15. The Clean Water Act (CWA) is the cornerstone of surface water quality
protection in the United States. The Act does NOT:
A. Employs a variety of regulatory and nonregulatory tools to sharply reduce
direct pollutant discharges into waterways
B. Govern the safe transport of drinking water to the home.
C. Restore and maintain the chemical, physical, and biological integrity
of the nation's waters
D. Protect fish, shellfish, and wildlife in and on the nations' waters
E. Finance municipal wastewater treatment facilities
16. Which of the following pollutants originates from a point source?
A. Excess fertilizers, herbicides, and insecticides from agricultural lands
and residential areas;
B. Oil, grease, and toxic chemicals from urban runoff and energy production;
C. Sediment from improperly managed construction sites, crop and forest
lands, and eroding stream banks;
D. Bacteria and nutrients from sewage treatment plants, factories and ships.
E. Bacteria and nutrients from livestock, pet wastes, and faulty septic
systems;
17. How can one part per million (ppm) of something dissolved in water
(e.g. dissolved oxygen) be the same as one milligram per liter (mg/L)?
A. Because a liter of water weighs 100 grams and a milligram is one hundredth
of a gram
B. Because mg/L and ppm are always equal in all types of liquids
C. Because one liter of water weighs 1000 grams and a milligram is one thousandth
of a gram
D. Because the atomic weight of water is one ppm
E. Because grams and liters are the same units
18. European Starlings are not native to North America. What do we call
these types of species?
A. Introduced, exotic species
B. Extirpated species
C. Native species
D. Nuisance species
19. Canada Geese are protected under the Federal Migratory Bird Treaty
Act and Ohio State Law. This protection is extended to the following:
A. geese and goslings
B. goslings only
C. geese, goslings, nests and eggs
D. geese only
20. Ohio's minimum state goal for the resident Canada goose population
is:
A. 40,000
B. 60,000
C. 140,000
D. 80,000
21. The main diet component of the Osprey is:
A. small mammals
B. mice
C. fish
D. birds
22. A board measuring 12 inches long, 12 inches wide and 2 inch thick
is how many board feet?
A. 1 board foot
B. 2 board feet
C. 3 board feet
D. 4 board feet
23. Trees reduce runoff and erosion from storms by ___%.
A. 10%
B. 13%
C. 5%
D. 7%
24. What percent of Ohio is forested?
A. 27%
B. 29%
C. 31%
D. 39%
25. Porous forest soils readily allow water to infiltrate, increasing
groundwater recharge, ____________ the potential for flash flooding.
A. eliminating
B. reducing
C. increasing
1. The discovery of the invasive Emerald Ash Borer in the United States (in the Detroit area in 2002) is an example of what aspect of invasive species biology?
A. Discovery of a rare species native to Michigan
B. Failure of biological controls in a natural ecosystem
C. Failure to prevent entry of a species foreign to North America
D. Failure to prevent spread of a species native to Canada
E. Introduction of a biological control agent to an altered ecosystem
2. In 2008, the U. S. federal government decided not to place the Polar Bear on the endangered species list. Many biologists, however, have concluded that it should be so listed, because of threats to the species by what environmental factor(s)?
A. Habitat loss due to increased oil field development in the Arctic
Coastal
Plain
B. Loss of pack ice due to arctic warming resulting from climate change
C. Overfishing in polar waters by large factory fishing fleets
D. Population decline due to diseases caused by West Nile virus
E. Both B and D are correct.
3. Which of these criteria is/are required for a site to be considered a biodiversity hotspot?
A. It must be found in the humid tropics.
B. It must contain >1500 endemic plant species.
C. It must have lost >70% of original habitat.
D. It must contain >5% of known bird and mammal species.
E. Both B and C are criteria which correctly define hotspots.
4. All of the following are invasive species EXCEPT which one?
A. European Starling
B. Hemlock Woolly Adelgid
C. Kudzu
D. Mourning Dove
E. Zebra Mussel
5. Although it is clear that most population declines and extinctions result from multiple factors, what is the one factor most contributing to endangered populations?
A. Alien/invasive species
B. Climate change
C. Pollution
D. Over-exploitation
E. Habitat degradation and loss
6. The recharging of ground-water via wetlands is an example of which of these types of values of (or reasons to conserve) biodiversity?
A. Ecosystem services
B. Economic
C. Aesthetic
D. Ethical/moral
E. Food sources
7. Acid deposition (aka acid precipitation or acid rain) can lead to acidification of surface waters, lakes more so than streams. In general, fish populations cannot survive in bodies of water with pH values at or below what value?
A. 7.0
B. 6.5
C. 5.5
D. 4.5
E. 3.5
8. Acid deposition (aka acid precipitation or acid rain) has a greater effect on forests and wildlife in what region of the United States?
A. Great Plains states
B. Northeastern states
C. Pacific Northwest states
D. Southeastern states
E. Western Mountain states
9. In the 1960s and into the 1970s, the populations of many fish eating birds and birds of prey (e.g., brown pelican, peregrine falcon, bald eagle) decreased because of reproductive failure resulting from which of these environmental factors?
A. Alien/invasive species
B. Climate change
C. Habitat degradation and loss
D. Over-exploitation
E. Pollution
10. In southern states like Louisiana, significant damage to wetlands, often leading to the conversion of vegetated wetlands to open water, results from overgrazing by which of these invasive alien species?
A. Alligator
B. Fire Ant
C. Grass Carp
D. Nutria
E. Zebra Mussel
11. Preservation of terrestrial biodiversity often emphasizes preservation of terrestrial plant communities. What is the ecological basis for this?
A. As producers, plants are the base of the trophic system.
B. Plants are always easier to identify, since they have flowers.
C. Plants are always easier to preserve, since they do not move around.
D. Plants are always easier to preserve, since they have fewer predators.
E. Plants only occur where the best climates and soils are found.
12. Among the pieces of evidence for a warming climate are numerous examples of changes in species' annual cycles of biological events. Which of the following have been observed?
A. Bats and bees occasionally emerging from hibernation at inappropriate
times
B. Frogs and salamanders migrating to their breeding ponds by earlier
dates
C. Neotropical migrant birds returning early to their breeding grounds
D. Deciduous trees leafing out earlier in the spring
E. All of these have been observed.
13. Approximately 2/3 of Ohio (except SE portion) comprises a significant portion of the Southern Great Lakes Forests ecoregion. As part of the industrial heartland, this ecoregion is highly altered from its natural state. Wetlands are a great example of this; what proportion of Ohio's original wetlands has been lost?
A. 100%
B. 90%
C. 75%
D. 67%
E. 50%
14. The Southern Great Lakes Forests ecoregion describes the naturally occurring ecosystem type(s) for our area of Ohio. What two tree species historically comprised 80% of the region's forest canopy?
A. Beech and White Oak
B. Sugar Maple and Beech
C. White Oak and Shagbark Hickory
D. Sugar Maple and White Pine
E. Sugar Maple and White Ash
15. Worldwide, deforestation in the form of burning and clearing annually adds excess carbon dioxide to the atmosphere, thereby exacerbating the problem of a changing climate. Approximately what is the proportion of CO2 added in this way?
A. 65%
B. 50%
C. 33%
D. 20%
E. 5%
16. According to a recent assessment of global amphibian populations, more amphibian species are threatened, and their populations are declining more rapidly, than is the case for the better known birds and mammals. The approximate percentage of amphibian species that are globally threatened with extinction is what?
A. 75%
B. 50%
C. 33%
D. 25%
E. 10%
17. Biodiversity should be valued for, among many other values, its potential to feed an ever-growing human population. Currently, 90% of plant-based foods are derived from _____ species of plants, and we use only about _____ species of the estimated 80,000 species that are potentially edible.
A. 15, 150
B. 15, 300
C. 50, 150
D. 50, 500
E. 100, 1000
18. Over the next several decades, which of these "natural events" will have the greatest negative effects on biodiversity?
A. Global climate change
B. Melting of the Arctic ice pack in summer
C. Natural rate of increase in the human population
D. Severe storms like Hurricane Katrina and Cyclone Nargis (2008, Myanmar)
E. Wildfires like Yellowstone in 1988 and California in 2008
19. The decimation of native bird populations on the island of Guam due to predation by the Brown Tree Snake is an example of which of these causes of extinction?
A. Alien/invasive species
B. Climate change
C. Habitat degradation and loss
D. Over-exploitation
E. Pollution
20. The fact that fish in various locations and habitats contain higher concentrations of mercury than are actually found in their local habitat is an example of what biological/environmental process?
A. Bioaccumulation
B. Endocrine disruptors
C. Fish migrations
D. Seasonal pollution pulses
E. Trophic cascades
21. A majority of biologists recognize the current and predicted near-term rates of extinction to be a mass extinction event, and one unprecedented in the history of life on earth. How would such an event differ from those of the geological past?
A. Animals but not plants are disappearing.
B. Aquatic but not terrestrial species are disappearing.
C. Human disruption of the biosphere is the root cause.
D. Plants but not animals are disappearing.
E. The current extinction event is no different than those of the past.
22. For which group of multicellular organisms do biologists recognize the most species?
A. Flowering plants
B. Insects
C. Mollusks
D. Mushrooms
E. Vertebrates
23. The actual number of species of organisms comprising the earth's biodiversity is not known. How many species do biologists estimate that there are?
A. 750,000 - 1 million
B. 1 - 2 million
C. 7 - 20 million
D. 15 - 50 million
E. Over 50 million
24. Climate change experts expect numerous effects of a warming climate. Currently, the most significant climate changes recognized, which are those having the most significant biological effects, are found where?
A. Central ocean areas
B. Continental interiors
C. Land areas in the Antarctic
D. Land area in the Arctic
E. Tropical forested areas
25. Generally, the preferable and most feasible way to maintain biological diversity is what?
A. Captive breeding programs
B. Genetic engineering programs
C. In situ conservation
D. Seed banks and germplasm collections
E. Zoos and collections
1. What type of recreation was not mentioned in the Ecological Impacts of Recreational Use of Trails article?
A. Horseback Riding
B. Bird Watching
C. Canoeing
D. Bicycling
2. What was not mentioned as a common type of stressor caused by recreation in the Ecological Impacts of Recreational Use of Trails article?
A. Fire Pits
B. Trampling
C. Nutrient Loading
D. Compaction
3. Horses destroy ___ times as much cover as hikers.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12
4. For birds, what type of recreational use was cited as the most disturbing from the Ecological Impacts of Recreational Use of Trails article?
A. Joggers
B. Canoers
C. Photographers
D. Hikers
5. In 1997, non-consumptive public land activities generated over $35.5 million and ____ jobs in Ohio.
A. 500
B. 1,000
C. 1,500
D. 2,000
6. In billions of dollars, how much income was generated by Ohio State Parks in 1999?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
7. What are non-consumptive recreational activities?
A. Activities which cause non-removal of animals
B. Activities which cause the non-removal of habitat
C. Activities which cause the non-removal of animals and habitats
D. none of the above
8. Technology increases can lead to increased access to difficult to reach habitats, which can result in decreased recreational impacts.
A. True
B.False
9. If you are ___ years or older, you need a fishing license to legally fish in Ohio.
A. 10
B. 12
C. 16
D. 18
10. There were 31 Ohio Hunter Injury Incident reported in 2006. What percent were fatal?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 25
D. 50
11. You need permission to hunt on someone else’s private land.
A.True
B. False
12. One of the species that ODNR tries to track during migration is the Osprey.
A.True
B.False
13. ODNR Division of Wildlife website provides information on what animal-related diseases that occur in Ohio?
A. West Nile Virus and Bubonic Plague
B. West Nile Virus and Raccoon Strain Rabies
C. Bubonic Plague and Raccoon Strain Rabies
D. None of the Above
14. Canoeing and Biking are important recreational activities along the LMR State Park.
A. True
B. False
15. Hunting is permitted at Caesar’s Creek State park.
A.True
B.False
16. The Little Miami River was Ohio’s first designated National Scenic River and its third designated State Scenic River.
A. True
B. False
17. There are over ____ nature preserves in Ohio.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 50
D. 80
18. Some State nature preserves are only open through written permits, so that ____ can be protected.
A. sensitive species
B. sensitive habitats
C. sensitive people
D. sensitive micro-climates
19. In Ohio, there are ____ State Scenic Rivers.
A. 3
B. 10
C. 13
D. 19
20. The Emerald Ash Borer is having a staggering effect on Ohio’s forests. The Emerald Ash borer is a (an) _____.
A. misunderstood insect
B. native insect
C. invasive insect
D. carnivorous insect
21. Ohio is now more than ____ percent forested, compared to just ____ percent in the early 1900’s.
A. 10, 6
B. 20, 6
C. 20, 12
D. 30, 12
22. The ODNR Division of Forestry will reforest rural lands.
A. True
B. False
23. Overfishing could cause which of the following to occur in a fish community:
A. a decrease in diversity
B. a shift in size structure
C. a decrease in the abundance of fish
D. all of the above
24. The Little Miami River is designated a ____ Difficulty Class river for boating and canoeing.
A. I, II
B. II, III
C. III, IV
D. IV, V
25. Which is not a major environmental impact that recreational areas can cause?
A. Soil compaction
B. Loss of land for agriculture uses
C. Increase water runoff
D. Provides more places for parking
1)
According to the National Averages from the U.S. Department of Energy,
about _______ percent of an average home energy bill goes to heating water.
A. 33
B. 25
C. 7
D. 15
2) The largest
portion of the utility bill for a typical home is for
A. washing and drying clothes
B. heating and cooling
C. cooking
D. lighting
3) Today,
the modern equivalent of a windmill is called a __________________ and
is used for _____________________.
A. airfoil, grinding grain
B. wind farm, pumping water
C. wind turbine, generating electricity
D. air loop, scaring birds from crops
4) Unlike
a conventional vehicle, a hybrid electric vehicle typically combines ______________________________
with _________________________.
A. a solar panel, electric storage battery
B. an internal combustion engine, an electric battery and electric motor
C. a wind turbine device, a photovoltaic cell
D. a common car engine, a backup electric capacitor
5) Fuel cell
vehicles aren’t yet commercially available because of
A. terrorist threats from oil-producing countries
B. the tendency they have for exploding
C. their cost
D. the difficulty in finding the right fuel
6) Inside
the typical fuel cell, _________ and ___________ combine to produce
electricity.
A. hydrogen and helium
B. hydrogen and oxygen
C. petroleum and natural gas
D. biomass and ethanol
7) If fueled
with pure hydrogen, fuel cells emit only _________ and ____________
as a byproduct.
A. heat , water
B. oxygen, light
C. water, helium
D. methane, heat
8) The Department
of Energy and the FreedomCAR and Vehicle Technologies Program has two
major goals in their development of fuel cells and hybrid propulsion systems.
The first goal is to emit little or no pollution. The second goal is
A. to enable Americans to save money
B. to enhance our freedom of vehicle choice
C. to reduce American dependence on foreign oil
D. to move larger volumes of freight and greater numbers of passengers
9) Which of
the following is not a source of biomass energy or “bioenergy”?
A. the organic components of municipal or industrial wastes
B. fumes from landfills
C. grassy and woody plant materials
D. coal deposits
10) What crops,
sometimes referred to as surplus crops, serve as feedstocks for biomass
fuels?
A. corn, potatoes
B. wheat, lettuce
C. soybean, corn
D. alfalfa, wheat
11) A thick
wall, painted black, made of a material that absorbs a lot of heat, is
incorporated into buildings to take advantage of passive solar heating,
and is called a _____________ wall.
A. passé
B. photo
C. solste
D. trombe
12) Thin film
solar cells use layers of ________________ materials only a few micrometers
thick.
A. semiconductor
B. insulating
C. conductive
D. superconductor
13) Only sunlight
of certain energies will work efficiently to create electricity, and much
of it is reflected or absorbed by the material that make up the cell.
Because of this, a typical commercial solar cell has an efficiency of
__________.
A. 4%
B. 82%
C. 45%
D. 15%
14) Alternative
energy sources can be divided into two categories, nonrenewable and renewable.
Which of the following would be considered nonrenewable?
A. tidal power
B. uranium
C. wind energy
D. wood/other biomass
15) In mobile
machinery, electricity is not a good replacement for oil. This is the
limitation many alternative energy sources have where electricity is the
end product. Which of the following is not one of the many reasons for
this?
A. storage batteries cannot compete with gasoline in energy density
B. batteries add considerable weight to any vehicle
C. oil and gasoline are much cleaner fuels for vehicles than electricity
D. storage batteries become almost useless in cold weather
16) Which
of the following is a drawback to using hydroelectric power?
A. hydroelectric power plants are very polluting
B. lowlands, often the best farmland, must be flooded
C. very few jobs are created when building the dams
D. gravity does the work and gravity is free
17) Electricity
that is generated from renewable energy sources is often referred to as
___________________.
A. “green power”
B. “free energy”
C. “nature’s friend”
D. “eco-energy”
18) Which
of the following renewable energy sources currently supplies the largest
amount of electricity in the U.S.?
A. wind
B. solar
C. landfill gases
D. hydroelectric
19) The greatest
solar resources in the U.S. are located in the __________________ states,
where sufficient solar energy falls on an area of 100 miles by 100 miles
to provide all of the nation’s electricity requirements.
A. Northwestern
B. Southwestern
C. Southeastern
D. Central Mountain
20) Air emissions
associated with generating electricity from ______________, ______________,
and ______________ technologies are negligible because no fuels are combusted
in these processes.
A. solar, coal, biomass
B. natural gas, wind, biomass
C. geothermal, wind, solar
D. hydroelectric, biomass, coal
21) Although
geothermal energy exists everywhere in the United States, it is not easy
to extract unless it is ________________________________________.
A. close to the surface
B. found in remote, hard-to-reach areas
C. mined at a high cost
D. found under the ocean
22) Which
of the following areas in the United States has the greatest potential
for generating electricity from geothermal energy?
A. New York, New Jersey, Maryland
B. Alabama, Georgia, Florida
C. Ohio, Kentucky, Indiana
D. Nevada, California, Alaska
23) Fuel cells
that electrochemically combine hydrogen and oxygen to produce electricity
and heat offer the promise of making hydrogen an ideal universal fuel.
However, which of the following disadvantages does NOT apply to hydrogen?
A. it cannot be mined or harvested
B. it creates pollutants when burned
C. it does not occur naturally by itself
D. it is very flammable and explosive
24) Even though
the installation price of a geothermal heat pump system for a residence
is several times the price of a conventional heat pump system, the additional
costs are returned to the homeowner in energy savings. This commonly takes
about ___________.
A. 5-10 years
B. 25-30 years
C. 2-4 months
D. 1-2 years
25) Individual
solar cells are typically combined into modules that hold about 40 cells.
Many of these modules are combined together to form groups that can be
mounted to collect sunlight and convert it to electricity. These groups
are called _______________.
A. photo-sols
B. photovoltaic arrays
C. solar chips
D. power grids
Water Stewardship in a Changing Climate
1) Climate change is
predicted to impact seasonal temperatures in Ohio. Which of the following
will most likely be seen by the year 2100?
A. warmer temperatures only in summer
B. warmer temperatures only in winter
C. year-round warming with a greater temperature rise in summer
D. year-round warming with a greater temperature rise in winter
2) Changes in precipitation
as part of climate change will affect agriculture through altering the
water supply. Which of the following is predicted to be most likely?
A. severe storms and flooding events will increase crop productivity
B. droughts and warmer temperatures will reduce the number of plant pests
and crop productivity will increase
C. lower groundwater availability will decrease crop productivity
D. higher summer rainfall will increase herbivores that feed on crop leaves
and seeds and crop productivity will decrease
3) Human health will be impacted
by climate change. Which of the following is a predicted impact due to
changes in water quality?
A. increase in airborne and waterborne diseases
B. increase in heat stress episodes
C. decrease in incidences of frostbite
D. decrease in toxin accumulation
4) In what way will the total
volume of fresh water in Ohio change by the year 2100?
A. increase through higher rainfall and storm events.
B. increase due to having more ice caps melting
C. decrease through higher evaporation and less groundwater recharge
D. decrease because of less storms and erosion
5) All of the following gases
are greenhouse gases that contribute to global warming, with the exception
of:
A. carbon dioxide
B. methane
C. nitrous oxide
D. ozone
6) Because of an increased
concentration of greenhouse gases by the year 2100, which of the following
climate changes are predicted at a global level?
A. a decrease in the frequency and intensity of frosts and cold spells
B. a decrease in precipitation
C. an increase in sea level of one-half to three feet
D. an increase in temperature on average of one degree centigrade
7) With nearly one third of all heat-trapping emissions coming from the
transportation sector in the U.S. and most of the nation’s car manufacturing
capacity being located within the Great Lakes region, there is a unique
opportunity for this region to effect change. To reduce emissions from
the transportation sector, we should do all of the following except:
A. increase fuel economy standards which would reduce heat-trapping gas
emissions and oil consumption while saving consumers money at the pump
B. provide state tax incentives or rebates for purchase of hybrids and
other fuel-efficient vehicles
C. provide tax incentives for use of low-carbon alternative fuels such
as ethanol and bio-diesel
D. evaluate and update state energy efficiency standards in the building
code for new construction
8) “Nutrient trading” programs
under the Clean Water Act would:
A. provide a means for industrial and municipal waste water dischargers
to pay farmers to reduce their nutrient losses into waterways
B. allow for the distribution of aquatic organisms that consume nitrogen
and release a less harmful nutrient
C. provide a way for farmers to trade in their current stock of nitrogen
fertilizers, which are the primary source of nitrous oxide emissions,
in exchange for an organic fertilizer
D. encourage the protection and development of wetlands to allow for more
naturally occurring nutrient retention and water filtration to purify
the water.
9) Since the pre-industrial
era, atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide have increased by nearly
_________%.
A. 10
B. 30
C. 50
D. 75
10) The Intergovernmental Panel
on Climate Change was created to:
A. assess scientific, technical and socio-economic information relevant
for the understanding of climate change, its potential impacts and options
for adaptation and mitigation
B. provide leadership and encourage partnership in caring for the environment
by inspiring, informing, and enabling nations and peoples to improve their
quality of life without compromising that of future generations
C. be the UN’s authoritative voice on the state of behavior of the Earth’s
atmosphere, its interaction with the oceans, the climate it produces,
and the resulting distribution of water resources
D. protect human health and the environment as it relates to climate change
11) Ground level ozone is associated with respiratory illnesses such as
asthma, reduced lung function, and reparatory inflammation. Climate change
will most likely:
A. increase concentrations of ground-level ozone because high temperatures,
strong sunlight, and stable air masses tend to increase urban ozone levels
B. not have an effect on concentrations of ground-level ozone because
only specific air pollutants contribute to its intensity
C. decrease concentrations of ground-level ozone slightly due to the offsetting
that occurs when more carbon dioxide is released
D. make ozone levels skyrocket to extremely unsafe conditions
12) There are simple, practical
solutions to global warming and its effects on the Great Lakes region.
There are actions we can take today to prevent the worst climate change
impacts from happening and to minimize the impacts we can no longer avoid.
What is the solution that can potentially have the greatest impact?
A. increase carbon storage through forest conservation and restoration
B. apply higher emission reduction technologies to coal burning plants
until the transition can be made to renewable energy sources
C. reduce transportation emissions by raising mileage standards for new
cars and light trucks (minivans, SUVs, pick-ups) and developing hybrid
vehicles
D. encourage green buildings and promote conservation by individuals and
corporations
13) Any serious effort to reduce
our contribution to global climate change must decrease our reliance on
fossil fuels and increase generation of electricity from clean renewable
sources. The Great Lakes region has a bounty of renewable resources available
today. All should be explored, with concentration on the least expensive
to produce. Which of the following renewable resource is currently the
most expensive?
A. biomass energy (using plant materials and animal wastes to generate
electricity)
B. hydro power
C. solar power
D. wind energy
14) Which renewable resource
is both cost-efficient and the least disruptive ecologically?
A. biomass energy (using plant materials and animal wastes to generate
electricity)
B. hydro power
C. solar power
D. wind energy
15) Climate change models for
Lake Superior and Lake Michigan-Huron predict changes for the years 2020
– 2090 as well as changes with a CO2-doubling. In summarizing all the
predictions, what is shown in the majority of cases?
A. lake level falls and temperature rises less than 3oF
B. lake level falls and temperature rises more than 3o F
C. lake level rises and temperature rises less than 3oF
D. lake level rises and temperature rises more than 3oF
16) Recreation in the Great
Lakes region is over an $85 billion dollar industry. Which of the following
impact on recreational use is most likely to occur with climate change?
A. recreational boating will improve with the predicted higher lake levels
in the region
B. beach closures from toxic algal blooms and disease organisms
C. ice fishing and skiing will be enhanced as the cold will be less severe
D. there will be more species and habitat for bird watching and hunting
17) Good stewardship of natural
resources is an important adaptation to climate change. Which of these
steps can best help counteract the future climate regime through conserving
soil and water?
A. in agriculture, use methods of no-till, low input and cover crops to
reduce carbon loss
B. reduce heat stress by ensuring there are air conditioners in every
home and institution
C. harvest existing forests now and then reforest so that the new plantings
can take up and store carbon and water
D. increase fertilizer use so that crops and forests will be more productive
and runoff will be reduced
18) Water resources are interconnected
through watersheds, soil drainage and flow into rivers, lakes and ultimately
oceans. Because of the impact of each user and the interconnection of
waterways, which of the following would be the most effective way for
Ohioans to work to address water stewardship and climate change issues?
A. at the county level
B. throughout the state, connecting the local and county levels
C. between states within the Great Lakes region and federal Government
D. coordinate work at all the above levels, including internationally
with Canada because water is a shared resource and all who utilize a water
body should take responsibility to care for this precious resource
19) Global warming is expected
to have what impact on precipitation trends?
A. decrease in annual precipitation
B. slight decrease in rain events and a significant increase in snow events
annually
C. more rainfall concentrated in large storms
D. lowering of Great Lakes and sea levels
20) Diverse wildlife habitats
can be found and created in many different locations. Wild, uninhabited
(by humans), open space usually comes to mind when we think of good wildlife
habitat. Other valuable wildlife habitats however, can also be found in
other areas. In the past few years, a specialized, wildlife conservation
program/approach has been developed that allows people from urban and
city locations to also plan and manage for wildlife. What is the name
of this conservation program/approach?
A. Back Yard Conservation
B. Front yard Conservation
C. Urban Conservation
D. Wildlife For Cities
21) Climate change could harm water quality in Tawawa Creek if river flows
decreased due to rising pollution concentrations and there were:
A. less runoff to deliver nonpoint source pollution
B. less water to dilute the pollution
C. increased water withdrawals by the City of Sidney
D. increased flooding events
22) Growing carbon in crop fields is an advantage for farmers and environmentalists.
Accumulation of carbon in soil reduces carbon dioxide in the air. As farmers
succeed
in storing more carbon in soil, which climate change would be expected?
A. Warmer average air temperatures
B. Less frequent droughts
C. Longer growing seasons
D. Changes in seasonal rain or snowfall
23) Defining what characteristics
will be used to determine what is and isn’t a wetland has caused a great
deal of disagreement among many interested groups and government agencies
(both those in favor of protecting wetlands and those in favor of draining
or filling them). After much discussion, the federal agencies responsible
for wetland delineations have come to agree on three basic characteristics
that are used to evaluate potential wetland sites. These characteristics
are:
A. The presence of waterfowl, wetland mammals, and wetland insects.
B. The presence of waterfowl living in them, presence of cattails, and
the presence of water.
C. The presence of water, wetland soils, and types of vegetation growing
in them.
D. The presence of water, wetland soils, and waterfowl living in them.
24) In wetland restoration,
it is important to look for land that will produce the water regime that
will create the wetland habitat most accommodating to the greatest diversity
of wildlife. Thus, wildlife biologists and wetland designers look for
certain types of sites that typically provide the best opportunities for
wetland restoration. In Ohio the best potential sites for most wetland
impoundments are what type of areas?
A. Where former wetlands have been converted to agriculture.
B. Where former wetlands have been converted to tree plantings.
C. Where former wetlands have been converted to yards.
D. Where former wetlands have been converted to a pond or lake.
25) Adapting agricultural practices
can reduce carbon dioxide emissions that contribute to global warming.
All of the following are recommended practices, EXCEPT for ______________.
A. converting marginal farmland into native forests in order to sequester
carbon
B. reduce greenhouse gas emissions from livestock waste by manure digesters
that convert the gases into electricity
C. reduce fertilizer use and conserve nitrogen in soils through nitrification
inhibitors
D. switch to shorter-season varieties and plant later in order to maximize
the productivity of the growing season as the climate grows warmer
1. The National Park Service recommends historical sites be evaluated by several specialists. The recommendation does not include: a. Historians b. Landscape historians c. Architectural historians d. Watershed coordinators
2. The National Park Service provides several suggestions
when completing a rural survey for an historic site. Which
is not one of the recommendations? a.
Use historic contexts as a primary source for information. b.
Use the statement of historic contexts as a guide for identifying historic
properties and
judging what features require the greatest attention
and contribute most to historic
significance. c.
Be well-equipped as you enter the field with both a knowledge of the history
of the
area and personal tools such as maps, aerial photos,
sketch pads, markers, note pads,
cameras, compasses, and binoculars. d.
Be sensitive to ongoing rural activities and the rights of property owners
3.Which answer is not a factor in the definition of a rural historic landscape? a. Human activity b. Occupancy c. Intervention d. Human development
4.The National Trust for Historic Preservation (NTHP) is
a leading advocate and
educator for historic preservation demonstrating that preserving
our heritage improves
the quality of life in America by saving diverse historic
places and revitalizing our
communities. The National Trust acts as: a.
An information clearinghouse on historic landscape practices b.
An information clearinghouse on preservation practices c.
A curator for the collection of historic American homes d.
An advocate for federal, state, and local legislation protecting architectural,
cultural, and maritime heritage
5.Preserving and protecting a cultural resource is impossible without reliable information on its condition and without: a. The ability to monitor change b. The ability to monitor stream capacity c. The ability to determine natural vegetation d. The ability to determine prior land uses
6. The intent of the standards developed by the _______________are
to assist the long-
term preservation of a property's significance through
the preservation of historic
materials and features. a.
National Manager of Historic Landmarks b.
Federal Manager of Historic Preservation c.
Secretary of Internal Affairs d.
Secretary of the Interior
7. "______________" is defined as "the process
of returning a property to a state of
utility, through repair or alteration, which makes
possible an efficient contemporary
use while preserving those portions and features of
the property which are significant
to its historic, architectural, and cultural values." a.
Rehabilitation b.
Historic preservation c.
Period restoration d.
Landscape revitalization
8. The goals of the Preble County Historical Society are to continue to provide an historic oasis and to preserve _________________, the agricultural setting, and the history of Preble County. a. Historic buildings b. Local landmarks c. The scenic beauty d. The natural landscape
9. Sara Swartsel’s objectives for sharing and preserving
the Swartsel farm were
progressive. From the list below, identify the item that
is not one of the objectives. a.
To provide for and encourage plantings and horticultural activities b.
To encourage and provide space and physical facilities for activities
of a cultural and
educational nature such as outdoor education c.
To provide for local landmarks d.
To encourage and provide space and physical facilities for activities
of a cultural and
educational nature such as environmental studies
10. After the War of 1812, Dr. Daniel Drake estimated that land value in Preble county changed drastically. Select the change in estimated land value from the list below. a. 25% to 50% decrease b. 25% to 35% increase c. 25% to 50% increase d. 25% to 35% increase
11. Sometimes historic preservation and improving water
quality are at odds with one
another. Which of the following items,
if preserved, would have the greatest negative
impact on stream health? a.
A streamside herb garden b.
A low dam c.
An old canal d.
An historic mill
12. In terms of preserving and improving water quality,
please select the most important
lands to protect from residential, commercial,
and industrial development. a.
Parking lots and roadways b.
Low dams c.
Floodplains and wetlands d.
Flood levees
13.Ohio has experienced relatively rapid rates of land
being converted from rural to
suburban land uses, but only modest population
gains. Ohio ranked 8th in the nation in
the amount of land converted this way from 1992-1997,
but only 22nd in total
population growth in the 1990’s. Almost all of
the growth has been in townships
surrounding urban areas. What implications might
this phenomenon have on stream
health? a.
Better stream health because urban areas are less densely populated than
they used to
be. b.
Better stream health because all the new homes being built are tied to
sanitary sewers
instead of using septic systems. c.
Worse stream health because new development in rural areas increases the
amount of
water flowing quickly into local waterways. d.
Worse stream health because people are living closer to their places of
work
14. Which of the following common Ohio tree species has
likely benefited the most from
the use of fire by native Americans, early
settlers, and modern forest managers? a.
White Ash b.
Sugar Maple c.
Red Oak d.
Black Cherry
15. The livelihood of 20th century rural Appalachian families
was most hurt by which of
the following tree diseases? a.
Oak wilt b.
Chestnut blight c.
Dutch elm disease d.
Verticillium wilt
16. Which of the following non-native woodland invasive
species was not once planted
for the purpose of “wildlife enhancement”? a.
Amur Honeysuckle b.
Multiflora Rose c.
Garlic Mustard d.
Russian Olive
17. Between 1800 and 2000 forest cover in Ohio dropped
from about 95% to 30%
forested. Roughly, what percent of
Ohio was forested around 1900? a.
80% b.
60% c.
30% d.
10%
18. Riparian buffer strips along streams are beneficial
to protecting landscapes from
flooding. Wetland areas within a buffer
system provide added benefit of filtering or
retaining nutrients and sediment.
Verification of riparian wetland buffers is
confirmed best through: a.
Examination of soil maps b.
On-site investigations c.
Studying soil descriptions d.
Analyzing plant populations
19. Agriculture in Preble County when it was first
settled involved all of the following
land use decisions and trends except: a.
Better drained soils were used for cropland b.
Areas needing extensive drainage systems were settled last c.
Swampy and wet soils were maintained as wetlands d.
Swamps and wet soils were used for pasture
20. The soil survey gives ratings for soil suitabilities
for growing cultivated crops. The
loss of acreage of which soil below would
be least damaging to the county’s total
crop production potential? a.
WeA b.
FgC2 c.
MoB d.
OkA
21. The proposed education center to be built at the farm
is planned to be located on the
OkB2 soil type. A conventional septic tank system is
not suitable. What is the soil
limitation? a.
Wetness b.
Slope c.
Excessive permeability d.
Erosion
22. Wildlife species can sometimes adapt to cultural landscapes
to the extent of utilizing them instead of
their historical habitats. This is true of the peregrine falcon.
In Ohio they are known to nest only on
man-made structures such as skyscrapers and
bridges and are found in many of Ohio’s
metropolitan areas. How has this affected
Ohio’s peregrine falcon population? a.
The population is decreasing because predation of young falcons is higher
in
metropolitan areas b.
The population is increasing because people in the cities are feeding
the falcons c.
The population is decreasing because of the air pollution associated with
metropolitan
areas d.
The population is increasing because the manmade structures simulate the
natural cliff
nest sites and prey species for the falcons are plentiful
in and near the cities
23. Hunting, trapping and fishing are part of our cultural
heritage. They also play an important role in the management
of Ohio’s wildlife resources. Money generated by
the sale of hunting, trapping and fishing
licenses, permits, and certain stamps funds
much of the wildlife conservation in Ohio.
If you are 16 years old and are hunting for
waterfowl on a public wildlife area in
Ohio you need to possess… a.
An annual hunting license for the state of Ohio b.
An Ohio Wetland Habitat Stamp c.
A Federal Duck Stamp d.
All of the above
24. This native Ohio bird was at one time the most common game bird in the United States. Unregulated hunting to provide meat for the open markets of the past combined with the intense deforestation of the eastern United States during the 1700 and 1800’s resulted in the extinction of this bird. Name the species of bird a. Dodo bird b. Rock Dove c. Passenger pigeon d. Ivory-billed woodpecker
25. Some nonnative plant and animal introductions have
brought around many positive
results and have become very ingrained
in our culture. Which statement below is true
about the Chinese ring-necked pheasant? a.
Pheasants are a popular game bird b.
Pheasants are a frequent subject in wildlife art c.
Habitat management for pheasants benefits many species of native wildlife d.
All of the above
1) With the exploding development in the suburbs or bedroom communities, we now can observe how urban land use affects water quality. Headwater streams are being piped, filled in, rerouted or encroached upon, causing degradation of streams. Which statement is correct about headwater streams?
a. Headwater streams do not dilute pollutants before they enter larger streams. b. Headwater streams help dilute nutrients before they enter larger streams. c. Increase water temperature is not an issue with urbanization. d. Ground water or base flow contributions to headwater streams increase with urbanization. e. Impacts to headwater streams do not affect larger streams that they flow into.
2) As urban areas continue to grow there is an increase in impervious surfaces, which means the natural environment is being removed as development occurs. In a natural setting with more vegetation there is less trap heat but with an urban environment there is more trap heat. This is because the asphalt, rooftops, concrete and buildings trap the heat and cause an increase in temperature. This is called?
a. Urban heat island b. Green space c. Terrestrial emmittions d. Global warming e. None of the above
3) A developer who wants to put as many homes in as possible bought this farm. The developer decides to design the subdivision with quarter acre lots. This means there will be a dramatic increase of impervious surfaces compared to its natural setting. What statement is correct about the hydrologic cycle?
a. Run off will decrease. b. Evaporation will decrease c. Infiltration and ground water contribution will increase. d. Infiltration will decrease.
4) As urbanization increases there is less infiltration and water contributing to the ground water table. As population increases in these urbanizing areas they have to pull more water from the ground water supplies for drinking water. With the decrease of infiltration and increase of drinking water the ground water levels drop, which can create subsidence or sinkholes. The developer does not want to take the chance and is incorporating infiltration processes with his stormwater design. He is asking you which soils are best for infiltration and recharging the ground water levels.
- Montgomery silty clay loam, 0-2% slope- subjected to occasional flooding and contains a high water table. Genesee silt loam, 0-2% slope- Well drained soils and subjected to occasional flooding
- Eldean -Casco complex, 6-18% slopes- Moderate to moderately steep slopes that are severely eroded.
5) _________ is known as the speeding up of erosion due to human activity.
- Natural erosion Accelerated erosionGeologic erosion
- None of the above
6) Which of the following is not a step that a community could take to allow surface water to infiltrate and recharge groundwater aquifers?
- Drill wells to recharge underground aquifers.Install rain gardens on individual lots.Use pervious pavers instead of asphalt or concrete. Drain storm sewers into streams
- Catch basins that have a subsurface outlet infiltration system.
7) Which of the following is not considered non-point source pollution?
- Effluent from a wastewater treatment plant and industry.Pesticides, oil, and fertilizersPet and yard waste
- Failing septic systems and washing cars on driveways.
8) The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) considers a stream that is under _______ of drainage area to be a primary headwater stream.
- .1 square mile1 square mile10 square miles
- 100 square miles
9) Which of the following is not a benefit to protecting primary headwater streams?
- Nutrient, sediment, pollution and flood controlHabitat and food supply for wildlifePreventing degradation down stream
- None of the above
10) _______ percent of stream miles in Ohio are composed of primary headwater streams.
- About 80%About 50%About 20%
- About 5%
11) Point source pollution is the principal cause of surface water quality degradation.
- True
- False
12) Urban areas contribute to nonpoint source pollution through surface runoff and storm sewers.
- True
- False
13) What would cause the higher and lower temperature in the different landscapes or land uses?
- The rooftops and streets would cause higher temperatures and vegetation allows for cooler temperatures.All the concrete within the city allows for cooling of the air temperature.Removing vegetation and replacing it with concrete cools the air.
- All the above are true
14) In natural settings, very little rainfall is converted to runoff because most is infiltrated into the soil, which supplies deep-water aquifers. In urban areas, less rainfall is infiltrated and more is converted to runoff. Which of the following is not a result of increased stormwater runoff?
- Increased volume Reduced groundwater recharge Reduced severity of flooding
- Soil Erosion
15) Developers are generally required to submit site plans to help local officials determine whether proposed development complies with land use regulations. Each site plan should contain a stormwater management plan addressing the impact the proposed land use will have on water quantity and quality. To assist in reviewing stormwater management plans, there are four basic principles, called the “Four Cs” of stormwater management, which provide a framework for effective plan review. Which of the following is not one of the “Four Cs” of Stormwater Management?
a. Cleansing b. Collection c. Control d. Compost
16) Pet waste can be a major source of bacteria and excess nutrients if not disposed of properly. These pollutants often show up in stormwater, contributing to adverse effects on plants, fish, animals and people and drinking water sources. When walking your pet, what is the proper method to dispose of pet waste?
a. Dump pet waste into the storm drain b. Dump the pet waste into the nearest creek c. Flush the pet waste into the toilet d. Leave the pet waste on the ground
17) There are many things residential owners can do around the home to prevent stormwater pollution and add value to their property, both financially and environmentally. Which of the following could be incorporated into the landscaping plan specifically to utilize rainwater and prevent stormwater pollution?
a. Rain garden b. Rain barrel c. Permeable pavement d. All of the above
18) Phase I of the NPDES (National Pollution Discharge Elimination System) Permit Program addressed construction activities over 5 acres of disturbed land. The new Stormwater Phase II Rule extends coverage of the NPDES storm water program. One distinct difference between Phase I and Phase II, is that Phase II requires permits for construction activities greater than ______ acres of disturbed land.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 10 d. 20
19) Nonpoint Source Pollution has been associated with water quality standard violations and the impairment of designated uses of surface waters. What pollutants are most responsible for nonpoint source impacts to the Nation’s surface waters?
a. Hydrocarbons and road salts b. Pathogens and heavy metals c. Siltation and nutrients d. Toxics
20) When transplanting a tree it is best to plant the tree where relative to the root collar?
a. root collar level with the soil surface b. root collar significantly above the soil surface c. root collar significantly below the soil surface d. it does not matter as the tree will adapt
21) Which of the following conditions is commonly found when balled and burlap trees are improperly planted in clay soils?
a. mortality due to drought b. girdling roots c. armillaria root rot d. witches-broom
22) Which of the following common urban tree diseases leads to the mortality of Norway Maples?
a. verticillium wilt b. fire-blight c. anthracnose d. cytospora canker
23) The Johnston family, like many of the modern residents in the Miami Valley, probably relied on ground water as the source for the water that they drank, cooked in, and used to water their livestock. What is the term for the area where this groundwater comes to the surface?
- Both B and D.This is known as the aquifer area. This is known as the discharge area.
- This is known as the plume area.
24) Which of the following is not a form of geologic or “natural” erosion?
- WindWaterIce (freeze-thaw)Stream
- Farming
25) Which of the following is not considered a way to alter habitat within a stream?
- Channelization or culverting a stream Natural flood events
- Removal of trees, riparian vegetation, and log jams