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Field EcoStation Test Area IV Envirothon
There are five years available: 1. Parent material and topography are factors that influence soil formation. Which landform does the soil at the pit occupy?
2. The landscape position and parent material of a soil suggest the soil layers likely to be found in the soil. This fact is useful for making land use decisions. The parent materials of the soil at the pit is:
3. Soil drainage class refers to the depth of water saturation in a soil profile that existed under natural conditions. The soil at the pit is in which USDA soil drainage class?
4. Soil compaction reduces the amount of water that can be stored in the soil or for supplying aquifer recharge. Which factor below is not significant for causing compaction?
5. The solum of a soil contains the “true soil” in which roots grow and the processes of soil development occur. What is the depth of the solum in the soil at the pit?
6. The structure of a soil involves the shape, grade and size of soil aggregates found in the soil. It is an important indicator of soil quality. What is the structure of the soil at the pit between 25 and 30 inches deep?
7. Adding new organic matter to the soil every year is important to maintaining soil quality. Which outcome of those listed below is least beneficial to water storage and availability in the soil?
8. How many factors are involved in soil formation?
9. Name one of the processes of soil formation by which horizons are formed
10. Fish species found in a body of water can often be an indicator of the water quality of that body of water. If you were to take a fish sampling of a stream, what species would you look for to decide this is a good quality stream?
11. The Soil Survey gives much information on the suitability of soils for land uses. If the soil at the pit is AvA, Avonburg silt loam it is poorly suited for all uses below except:
12. The Soil Survey of Warren County says that the kinds of wildlife living in an area depends on all three factors below except:
13. The General Soil Map shows three associations within the Little Miami Valley near CampKerns. Which soil associations below are found at this camp?
14. Soils formed under wet conditions that have slow permeability and the capacity to store and sustain desired water levels provide the best opportunities for wetland restoration. What name has been given to these wetland soils?
15. Forestry Best Management Practices (BMPs) were established mainly to minimize:
16. If a flat woodland soil has a shallow rooting zone and is saturated which of the following hazards is most likely?
17. Which one of the following statements is true of a Soil Series description in the Soil Survey?
18. Which of the following will increase the dissolved oxygen (D.O.) of Lake on a sunny day in May?
19. Farmers can manage their operations to sequester (store) more carbon, by all measures below except:
20. Agricultural producers may increase emissions of greenhouse gases by which management practice below?
21. Historically Ohio farm landscapes were separated into fields by numerous brushy fencerows and hedges. This type of habitat is beneficial to certain upland wildlife. Which of the following animals are considered to be upland game species that utilize brushy field dividers?
22. What is another name for water table?
23. If the dominant vegetation on a forest site was pitch pine, scarlet oak, and
24. Recreational areas which are properly planned can provide all the below except what?
25. Practices that enhance infiltration of water into the soil protect streambanks and buffer areas. This promotes aquifer recharge with water and slows soil erosion. Evaluation of land uses for infiltration is done best by:
1. Topsoil
depth is a measure of soil quality. What is the depth of topsoil to the
nearest five inches of the soil at the pit? 2. Parent
material and topography are factors which influence soil formation. Which
landform does the soil at the pit occupy? 3. The solum
of a soil contains the “true soil” in which roots grow and the productivity
for growing alternative fuel producing crops exists. What is the depth
of the solum in the soil at the pit? 4. The landscape
position and parent material of a soil suggest the soil layers likely
to be found in the soil. This fact is useful for making land use decisions.
The parent material of the soil at the pit is: 5. Soil texture
affects water holding capacity, nutrient retention, permeability of water
and other soil functions. These functions determine a soils suitability
to enhance renewable fuel production. What is the soil texture between
25 and 30 inches deep in the pit? 6. Soil drainage
class refers to the depth of water saturation in a soil profile that existed
under natural conditions. The soil at the pit is in which USDA soil drainage
class? 7. The structure
of a soil involves the shape, grade and size of soil aggregates found
in the soil. It is an important indicator of soil quality. What is the
structure of the soil at the pit between 15 and 20 inches deep? 8. The Soil
Survey gives much information on the suitability of soils for land uses.
If the soil at the pit is MhB, Miamian silt loam it is good for all uses
below except: 9. The MhB,
Miamian silt loam is best suited to which recreational use below? 10. The Ragsdale
silt loam offers landusers advantages, and is rated good for what kind
of wildlife or habitat below? 11. The moderately
steep Miamian soil map unit at the wildlife station is rated good for
many wildlife habitat types. Which habitat below is it not rated good
for? 12. Ponds
may be used as a water source for geothermal heat pump home energy systems.
Which soil map unit at Camp Birch is rated best for soil features affecting
pond reservoir areas? 13. Which
soil map unit at Camp Birch is rated good for providing soil materials
for embankments and pond construction? 14. The General
Soil Map shows two associations within the Little Miami Valley near Camp
Birch. Which soil associations below are found at this camp? 15. Parent
material is an important factor of soil formation which is significant
to the formation of Miamian soil. What soil features found in the soil
at the pit in the substratum is not typical for that layer? 16. The woodland
management potential of Miamian soil is most limiting for which management
concern below? 17. Soil compaction
reduces the amount of water that can be stored in the soil or for supplying
aquifer recharge. Which factor below is not significant for causing compaction? 18. Evaluating
land uses which increase infiltration of water into the soil and aquifer
recharge with water is done best by: 19. Agricultural
producers may increase need for fossil fuel by which management practice
below? 20. Riparian
buffer strips around lakes are beneficial by protecting water quality.
Wetland areas within a buffer system provide added benefit of filtering
or retaining nutrients and sediment. Verification of riparian wetland
or lake buffers is done best through: 21. The Soil
Survey of Greene County says that the kinds of wildlife living in an area
depends on all three factors below except: 22. Productive
soils are important for growing biomass energy crops. Which crop below
is currently most widely used for biomass energy production? 23. Which
soil below is not suitable (by evidence of the US Department of Energy)
for installing a geo-thermal heat pump (GHP)? 24. Fish species
found in a body of water can often be an indicator of the water quality
of that body of water. If you were to take a fish sampling of an intermittent
stream, what species would you look for to decide this is a good quality
stream? 25. Which
of the following will increase the dissolved oxygen (D.O.) of Martin Lake
on a sunny day in May?
1) Topsoil depth is
a measure of soil quality. What is the depth of topsoil to the nearest
five inches of the soil at the pit? 2) Parent material and topography
are factors, which influence soil formation. Which landform does the soil
at the pit occupy? 3) The solum of a soil contains
the “true soil” in which roots grow and the processes of soil development
occur. What is the depth of the solum in the soil at the pit? 4) The landscape position and
parent material of a soil suggest the type of soil layers likely to be
found in the soil. This fact is useful for making land use decisions.
The parent material of the soil at the pit above 30 inches is: 5) Soil texture affects water
holding capacity, nutrient retention, permeability of water and other
soil functions. These functions determine a soils suitability to land
uses. What is the soil texture between 25 and 30 inches deep in the pit? 6) Soil drainage class refers
to the depth of water saturation in a soil profile that existed under
natural conditions. The soil at the pit is in which USDA soil drainage
class? 8) The Soil Survey gives much
information on the suitability of soils for land uses. One must identify
the soil type to be able to use it. The soil at the pit is good for all
uses below except: 9) Given that the soil at the
pit is WdA, Warsaw variant, it is best suited to which recreational use
below? 10) Which soil map unit at
Tawawa Park is rated best for water management through pond reservoir
areas? 11) Soils formed under wet
conditions that have slow permeability and the capacity to store and sustain
desired water levels provide the best opportunities for wetland restoration.
What name has been given to these wetland soils? 12) Living organisms are an
important factor of soil formation, which is significant to the formation
of Warsaw Variant soil. What soil features found in the soil at the pit
is stated to be plentiful in the surface layer of this soil signifying
living organisms? 14) Adding new organic matter
to the soil every year is important to maintaining soil quality. Which
outcome of those listed below is least beneficial to water storage and
availability in the soil? 15) Land uses that enhance
infiltration of water into the soil protect streambanks and buffer areas.
This promotes aquifer recharge with water and slows soil erosion. Evaluation
of land uses for infiltration is done best by: 16) Farmers can manage their
operations to sequester (store) more carbon, thereby slowing climate change
by all measures below except: 17) Agricultural producers
may increase emissions of greenhouse gases by which management practice
below? 18) An estimated 21,000 square
miles of alluvial soils in Mesopotamia lost its crop production potential
in the last 6,000 years (with population decline in the same region of
about 16 million people in the corresponding area today of Iraq). The
people obviously failed to manage the land wisely. Which factor below
did not contribute to this loss? 19) Each factor listed below
affected the success of agriculture in the ancient Egyptian civilization
along the Nile River except: 20) Soil compaction reduces
the amount of water that can be stored in the soil or for supplying aquifer
recharge. Which factor below is not significant for causing compaction? 21) Which soil at Tawawa Park
is most likely to have hydric inclusions? 22) Many soils in Shelby County
are highly susceptible to soil erosion. Three factors below influence
the ease of erosion on these soils. Which factor below will be most beneficial
to slow erosion? 23) The loss of which soil
below would be most damaging to the overall crop production base in Shelby
County? 24) Average annual precipitation
for Shelby County and Tawawa Creek is: 25) Which soil map unit at
Tawawa Park is rated good for providing topsoil for construction?
1. The Ohio Historical Society states that
historical landscape research should include all a. investigations of extant drawings b. specifications
c. plant lists prepared by the original and
subsequent designers, if such d. soil analysis
2.
There are several minor shrinkage cracks and several movement cracks in
the Bank a. The freeze-thaw cycle b. The heat-humidity cycle c. The moisture retention cycle d. The eco-thermo cycle
3. Some of the richest farmland in Ohio is found in Preble county, and stretches
northeastward into Miami and Shelby counties. Select the name given to
this ground a. the macadamized ridge b. the macadamized belt c. the moranic system d. the till plains
4.
Historically Ohio farm landscapes were separated into fields by numerous a. Cottontail rabbit, Bobwhite quail, Ring-necked pheasant b. Chipmunk, Eastern bluebird, Box turtle c. American coot, Hooded merganser, Mallard d. Woodchuck, Woodcock, Wood duck
5.
When a crop field is not fall plowed after harvest the crop residue reduces
the
a.
It provides excellent winter cover for wildlife c. It causes excessive debris in Ohio’s streams d. It increases wind erosion
6.
There is a hand-dug well near the soils station. Please choose the best
reason for its a. It is located near a feedlot. b. It is shallow. c. It is old. d. It is lined with stones instead of cement blocks.
7. What is another name for water table? a. Impervious layer b. Bed rock c. Water fall d. The top of the zone of saturation
8.
Ohio’s regulations, administered by the county health departments, require
that septic a. To prevent well-drilling equipment from crushing and ruining the leach field. b. To keep septic tank pump trucks from running over the wellhead.
c. To prevent
contamination of the well by the partially-treated sewage in the leach
d.
In order to reduce the number of lightening strikes that travel between
the two
9.
A homeowner with a septic system should have the tank pumped to maintain
it. How a. Every three years or when the annual inspection demonstrates a need. b. Only when the drains back up. c. Every ten years. d. Before alternating the leach fields every year.
10.
The majority of southwest Ohio’s private and community drinking water
is drawn a. A layer of sandstone bedrock surrounded by clay. b. An ancient valley filled with sand and gravel during the glacial period. c. A large channel dug by Native Americans and buried by the first European settlers d. Deep clay and silt deposits.
11. Forestry Best Management Practices (BMPs) were established mainly to minimize: a. the spread of invasive species b. soil erosion c. wind damage d. forest fires
12.
If an Ohio tree has a site index of 80 listed in the soil guide, you could
expect a 50 a. contain 80 boardfeet of lumber b. be 80 feet tall c. be 80 centimeters in diameter d. be 80 inches in circumference
13.
If a flat woodland soil has a shallow rooting zone and is saturated which
of the a. windthrow b. erosion c. lightning damage d. slippage
14. Soil compaction is most damaging to tree roots because it restricts the availability of? a. water b. nutrients c. air d. heat
15.
If the dominant vegetation on a forest site was pitch pine, scarlet oak,
and a. there is little moisture and the soil is high pH b. there is little moisture and the soil is low pH c. there is plentiful moisture and the soil is high pH d. there is plentiful moisture and the soil is low pH
16. Where in this area is soil compaction likely the greatest? a. along the grassed lane b. in the middle of the crop field c. on the forested hill side d. They are all equally compacted
17.
Conservation of topsoil on cropland is beneficial to sustaining or enhancing
crop a. Increasing biological activity b. Increasing the organic matter content c. Maintaining a layer of plant residue atop the soil d. Reducing the variety or biomass of crops grown.
18.
Growing carbon in crop fields is an advantage for farmers and environmentalists
a. Warmer average air temperatures b. Less frequent droughts c. Longer growing seasons d. Changes in seasonal rain or snow fall
19.
Agricultural producers may increase emissions of greenhouse gases by which
a. Limiting the number of field operations b. Applying nitrogen on fields only when needed c. Using conventional tillage d. Using digesters and covers on animal waste lagoons
20.
Which one of the following statements best describes a soil map unit description a. Any soil profile in the map unit will look the same as the typical profile b. The description gives the soils representative suitability to a land use c. Any soil profile in the map unit is equally suited to a certain land use d. The description explains all the management concerns of a home-site
21.
Trails established on the Swartsel Farm Historical Center lack a handicap a. FgB b. OkC2 c. Rs d. CeB
22.
The shape of the clusters of soil particles determines the form of soil
structure of a a. Granular b. Platy c. Subangular blocky d. Massive
23.
The landscape position and parent material description of a soil suggest
the type a. Alluvium over outwash b. Loess over outwash c. Outwash d. Loess over glacial fill
24.
The landscape position (or landform) of the soil at the pit is the result
of the a. Flood plain b. Ground moraine c. River terrace d. Outwash plain
25.
The soil at the pit is a Mollisol. It has a thick, dark surface layer
of topsoil which a. 10 inches b. 8 inches c. 14 inches d. 18 inches
1. The loss of topsoil from construction sites or home sites with heavy equipment or erosion is the worst on-site damage in urban areas. The ability of the soil to sustain urban landscape plantings is impaired by this loss due to all of the following affects except: a. Diminished biological activity of the soil b. Reduction in the organic matter content of the soil. c. Reduction of nutrients available to the plants. d. Loss of the soil’s ability to support foundations. e. Loss of the soil’s ability to regulate water flow. 2. The soil is often an overlooked yet important component of our urban infrastructure. Which of the following would not promote soil conservation on construction sites? a. Regulating runoff of storm water b. Supporting trees, shrubs, lawns and gardens c. Correcting soil related problems after they occur d. Limiting soil compaction during construction e. Implementing erosion control practices 3. Which one of the following statements is true of a Soil Series description in the Soil Survey? a. Any soil profile of the series will look the same as the typical profile. b. The description is representative of the series in the county. c. Any soil profile of the series is equally suited for a certain land use. d. The description explains all the management concerns of a home site. e. The description give all the information needed to install a septic tank absorption field. 4. A soil’s quality for any land use is assessed by comparing it to a “reference soil condition”, and indicators of soil quality. Which soil property below is least useful an indicator of soil quality? a. Soil organic matter (SOM) b. Infiltration c. Bulk density (BD) d. Soil color e. Soil respiration 5. One purpose of assessing soil quality of a parcel of land regarding farmland preservation is to protect and improve long-term agricultural productivity. Many soil properties affect the uses of soil including available water capacity, rooting depth (the deeper the better), typical yields, limitations for farming, etc. Soil limitations for uses in the Soil Survey indicate the affect of these and other soil properties on development. The conversion of which soil in the table below to non-farm uses would have the least impact on future crop productivity?
6. A soil’s quality depends partly on the shape of the clusters of soil particles or forms of soil structure. Which term below describes a cluster of soil particles formed in the soil by result of soil compaction by grading equipment? a. Plates b. Granules c. Blocks d. Clods e. Plates 7. Processes occurring in the soil over time may be called development or weathering. These processes greatly improve the soil suitability for urban land use. All of the following processes have occurred in the solum of the ElB2 map unit except: a. Accumulation of humus b. Accumulation of clay c. Formation of blocky structure d. Formation of platy structure e. Accumulation of sesquioxides 8. Soil drainage class refers to the frequency, depth, and duration of saturation by water in the soil profile that existed during soil formation. The soil at the pit is in which USDA soil drainage class? a. Very poorly drained b. Somewhat poorly drained c. Moderately well drained d. Well drained e. Somewhat excessively drained 9. Soils at the stations of this contest are formed in one of three types of parent materials. What type of parent material is the soil at the pit formed in? a. Glacial outwash b. Loess c. Recent alluvium d. Glacial till e. Lacustrine deposits 10. The landforms on which soils formed were shaped by powerful forces of nature such as continental glaciers, and the power of flowing water. What is the landform on which the soil at the pit formed in? a. Upland depression b. Stream terrace c. Upland hillslope d. Floodplain e. Terrace (geological) 11. Soil suitability to urban land uses is related to depth to root restrictions or the depth to the bottom of the solum. What is the thickness in inches of the B horizon of the soil at the pit? a. 11 b. 22 c. 28 d. 43 e. >60 12. The structure of the soil is related to the depth of soil development which is also related to permeability and water saturation. The structure is critical to the soils quality for building site development. What is the dominant structure of the subsoil at this site? a. Granular b. Massive c. Prismatic d. Platy e. Subangular blocky 13. The texture of the soil is related to the soils moisture holding capacity. Many years this is critical for buildings with basements and septic tank absorption fields. What is the texture of the subsoil at the soil at this site between 11 and 32 inches in depth? a. loam b. silt loam c. clay d. silty clay loam e. silty clay 14. The potential of the ElB2 soil map unit is fair for all of the following habitat elements except: a. Grain crops b. Grasses and legumes c. Hardwood trees d. Woodland wildlife e. Coniferous trees 15. The soil at the pit is not typical for soils in this map unit and is deeper to sand and gravel. It is better than usual for many urban related land uses. The depth to single grained sand and gravel is: a. 10-20 inches b. 20-40 inches c. 40-60 inches d. 60-80 inches e. >80 inches 16. Very poorly drained soils such as Montgomery, which is the second most extensive very poorly drained soil in Miami County exhibit many features favorable to establishing wetlands. All of the following features indicate this soil is well suited to establishment of wetlands except: a. A good rating for wetland plants b. A good rating for shallow water areas c. A good rating for wetland wildlife d. Occasional flooding frequency e. A seasonal high water table between 0 and 1 feet in depth 17. The ability of a soil to support wetland functions depends greatly on the presence of wetland hydrology, and partially the duration of saturation by water in the upper part. Which soil type below has the worst wetland hydrology in the un-drained condition regarding the duration or depth of saturation by water? a. Mt, Montgomery silty clay loam b. OdA, Odell silt loam c. Pe, Pewamo silty clay loam d. Ed, Edwards muck e. Wt, Westland silty clay loam 18. Tree species recommended for establishment on various soil map units are grouped by natural soil drainage. Which species below would not be recommended on ElB2 soil map unit? a. Eastern White Pine b. Pin Oak c. Northern Red Oak d. Black Walnut e. Yellow Poplar 19. Which popular land use decision below is not facilitated or encouraged by the presence of woodland on a site? a. Campgrounds b. Noise abatement buffers c. Hunting areas d. Hiking trails e. Athletic fields 20. True or False: The majority of a mature trees roots are generally located in the top 12” of the soil profile. a. TRUE b. FALSE 21. BMP’s or Best management Practices are measures that when utilized during timber harvesting help to minimize soil erosion – which of the following legislative acts provides a basis for encouraging the use of BMP’s on logging jobs in Ohio: a. House Bill 402 b. House Bill 88 c. The Ohio Forestry Initiative d. The 1999 Soil Protection Act 22. Which of the following is a term to designate the quality of a forest soil based on the height of the dominant trees at an arbitrarily chosen age – for example the average height of dominant trees at age 50 is 75 feet? a. Soil productivity value b. Tree growth indicator c. Height variable d. Site index 23. Wind-throw is fairly common on what type of soil? a. |
